A) There are four major functional classes of genes in Drosophila.
B) Drosophila genes cluster into four distinct groups of linked genes.
C) The overall number of genes in Drosophila is a multiple of four.
D) The entire Drosophila genome has approximately 400 map units.
E) Drosophila genes have, on average, four different alleles.
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) Recombination is a requirement for independent assortment.
B) Recombination must occur or genes will not assort independently.
C) New allele combinations are acted upon by natural selection.
D) The forces on the cell during meiosis II always result in recombination.
E) Without recombination there would be an insufficient number of gametes.
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) Methylation of C is permanent in a gene.
B) Genes required for early development stages must not be imprinted.
C) Methylation of this kind must occur more in males than in females.
D) Methylation must be reversible in ovarian and testicular cells.
E) The imprints are transmitted only to gamete-producing cells.
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) A and W
B) W and E
C) E and G
D) A and E
E) A and G
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) genomic imprinting
B) a mitochondrial gene mutation
C) a chloroplast gene mutation
D) viral genomes that inhabit egg cytoplasm
E) a trait acted upon by many genes
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) a characteristic facial appearance
B) a group of traits, all of which must be present if an aneuploidy is to be diagnosed
C) a group of traits typically found in conjunction with a particular chromosomal aberration or gene mutation
D) a characteristic trait usually given the discoverer's name
E) a characteristic that only appears in conjunction with one specific aneuploidy
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) Watson and Crick's structure of DNA was not done until 1953.
B) Chromosomes were piled up on top of one another in the nucleus.
C) Chromosomes were not distinguishable during interphase.
D) A method had not yet been devised to halt mitosis at metaphase.
E) Chromosomes were piled up on top of one another in the nucleus, chromosomes were not distinguishable during interphase, and a method had not yet been devised to halt mitosis at metaphase.
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) tortoiseshell females; tortoiseshell males
B) black females; orange males
C) orange females; orange males
D) tortoiseshell females; black males
E) orange females; black males
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) They are located close together on the same chromosome.
B) The number of genes in a cell is greater than the number of chromosomes.
C) Chromosomes are unbreakable.
D) Alleles are paired together during meiosis.
E) Genes align that way during metaphase I of meiosis.
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) early prophase
B) late telophase
C) anaphase
D) late anaphase or early telophase
E) late prophase or metaphase
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) The frequency of crossing over varies along the length of the chromosome.
B) The relationship between recombination frequency and map units is different in every individual.
C) Physical distances between genes change during the course of the cell cycle.
D) The gene order on the chromosomes is slightly different in every individual.
E) Linkage map distances are identical between males and females.
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) Gene a is closest to b.
B) Genes are in the order: a-b-c.
C) Gene a is not recombining with c.
D) Gene a is between b and c.
E) Distance a-b is equal to distance a-c.
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) The genes are showing independent assortment.
B) The three genes are linked.
C) The first gene is linked but the other two are not.
D) The first gene is assorting independently from the other two that are linked.
E) The first gene is located 14.4 units apart from the other two.
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) deletion
B) transversion
C) inversion
D) translocation
E) duplication
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) The human ancestor originally had 24 pairs but complete fusion of C2 and C4 occurred, reducing the total number of chromosomes.
B) A nondisjunction event must have occurred in the human ancestor, increasing the overall ploidy.
C) The loss of a chromosome is due to a deletion event in the human ancestor.
D) C2 must have undergone an inversion with C4.
E) There is not enough information to speculate.
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) masculine characteristics such as facial hair
B) enlarged genital structures
C) excessive emotional instability
D) normal female
E) sterile female
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) All the gametes will be diploid.
B) Half of the gametes will be n + 1, and half will be n - 1.
C) 1/4 of the gametes will be n + 1, 1/4 will be n - 1, and 1/2 will be n.
D) There will be three extra gametes.
E) Two of the four gametes will be haploid, and two will be diploid.
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) been triploid.
B) had a similar C2 to humans and only 23 pairs of chromosomes.
C) actually been human.
D) had 24 chromosomes, so nondisjunction could occur.
E) had wild type phenotypic traits identical to humans.
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) the result of genomic imprinting.
B) a mutation in the mitochondrial genome.
C) a mutation in the plastid genome.
D) X-linked.
E) Y-linked.
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) mitochondrial.
B) autosomal recessive.
C) sex-linked dominant.
D) sex-linked recessive.
E) autosomal dominant.
Correct Answer
verified
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